Home Uncategorized Salesforce.com Developer Certificaiton Question and Answers

1. While choosing a style for a custom object tab, developers may choose an uploaded custom style.

1. TRUE
2. FALSE

2. Visualforce pages can be embed into a record’s Detail Page.

1. FALSE
2. TRUE

3. What are the three ways to make a field required? (Choose 3 answers)

1. User authentication
2. Workflow rule
3. Page layout
4. Object level security
5. Validation rule
6. When creating a field or when editing a custom field.

4. Select the two customizations that can be made on the page layout of a custom object, when using the declarative methods?

1. Add custom detail and list buttons.
2. Make a field required based on a data value in another field.
3. Add an existing Visualforce page to an inline section.
4. Create a three-column section.

5. Without using Visualforce, which five of the following components can be customized on a page layout?

1. Images.
2. Field locations.
3. Related List properties.
4. Related Lists Displayed
5. Field properties.
6. Buttons.

6. A user can customize the dashboard displayed on their Salesforce.com homepage.

1. FALSE
2. TRUE

7.Choose three true statements regarding a force.com domain name.

1. It cannot be changed once it is registered to your organization.
2. It must be unique.
3. It cannot be mapped to your company’s domain.
4. It is usually the name of your company.

8. Choose three true statements regarding a force.com domain name.

1. It cannot be changed once it is registered to your organization.
2. It must be unique.
3. It cannot be mapped to your company’s domain.
4. It is usually the name of your company.

9. Which formula returns the number of days since the record was created, when the data type of CreatedDate field is a Date/time.

1. CreatedDate – TODAY()
2. NOW() – DATEVALUE(CreateDate)
3. TODAY() – DATEVALUE(CreatedDate)
4. TODAY() – (CreatedDate)

10. When do validation rules execute?

1. When a record is Saved.
2. While exporting records through data loader.
3. When a page loads.
4. During web service calls.
5. When a user successfully logs into the Salesforce.com UI.

11. After creating a Workflow Rule with a time-based action that sends an email reminder to users 14 days following record , a developer would like to test to make sure that the rule is working, as intended. How can the developer verify that the workflow rule is working? (Choose 2 answers.)

1. Select the developer’s username in the Debug Log setup. Create a new record and then, again, check the Debug Log for evidence that the Workflow executed.
2. Create a new record and then check the outbound message queue.
3. Create a new record and then check the time-based workflow queue.
4. Select the developer’s username in the time-based workflow queue setup, create a new record, and then check the queue for evidence that the workflow executed.

12. Which of the following are considered declarative business logic? (Choose 3 answers)

1. Validation rules
2. Objects
3. Apex
4. Approval Process
5. Page layouts
6. Workflow rules

13. Choose the four actions that workflow rule may initiate?

1. Log off.
2. Email alert.
3. Field update.
4. Assign a task.
5. Outbound messaging.
6. Launch a page.

14. If a particular business requirement could be met by either a formula field or an APEX trigger. Why would you want to use a formula field, over an APEX trigger? (Choose 2 answers.)

1. Formula fields allow greater control and flexibility than APEX Triggers.
2. Formula fields do not require knowledge of test classes and code coverage to deploy.
3. Formula fields can be created and deployed without programmatic development skills.
4. Formula fields allow access to resources external to force.com platform.

15. Where can users go to find more information on creating formula fields and validation rules?

1. Workforce.com
2. Formulaforce.com
3. Validationforce.com
4. Successforce.com

16. What are two components of a Workflow Rule?

1. Profiles
2. Validations
3. Objects
4. Actions
5. Criteria

17. Which scenario requires Apex to automate its business logic?

1. When a user creates a new Time Off request record (on a custom object) and clicks Submit for Approval, the Time off Request routes to the user’s manager for approval.
2. When a user saves a New Hire record (on a custom object), an outbound message is automatically sent with the new hire’s contact information to an external HR system.
3. When a user saves a new order (on a custom object), the quantity and products on the order are checked against a existing warehouse stock (a custom object). Then the warehouse name from which that product will ship is populated on the order record.
4. When a user enters a State and Zip code into custom fields on a Candidate custom object, it must be checked against a Zip Code custom Object to ensure that the Zip code entered does exist in the state.

18. Which one of the following formats is used when an outbound message is sent?

1. Apex
2. HTML
3. SMTP
4. XML

19. Which of the following are debug logs are used to track? ( Choose 3 answers.)

1. User Logins
2. Assignment
3. Execution of Apex code
4. Saved Records
5. Workflow rules

20. How many records can be imported using the import wizard?

1. 100000
2. 10000
3. No Limit
4. 20000
5. 50000

21. Which are components of the Developer Console? (Choose 2 answers)

1. Tests tool.
2. SOQL Workbench.
3. Query Editor.
4. Force.com IDE.

22. Which are capabilities of the Data Loader? (Choose 2 answers)

1. The data loader can bypass sharing model settings.
2. The data loader can de-duplicate records.
3. The data loader can load more than 50.000 records at a time.
4. The data loader can be executed from the command line.

23. If a field is set to “universally required”, when loading data through the API, will Users be required to populate the field?

1. NO
2. YES

24. Which values are needed on a comma delimited file, when using Data Loader for performing updating?

1. Created time and date of records.
2. Profile names of record owners
3. Logical names of records
4. Force.com Record IDs and Value to be changed.

25. A field hidden by field-level security is still visible through the API.

1. TRUE
2. FALSE

26. You are creating a custom defect tracking application, a custom object called bug is used to track defects. The bugs often have relationships to other bugs in a parent-child fashion. What relationship should the developer use to model the interdependency between child and parent bugs?

1. hierarchical
2. many-to-many
3. master-detail
4. self

27. The criteria is that all users should be able to see and edit all candidate records, but interviewers should not be able to modify the address of a candidate and should not be able to see the birth date of a candidate in the recruiting application.

1. Set the organization wide defaults for candidates to edit some fields.
2. Set the organization wide default for candidate to read-only.
3. Remove the edit permission on the candidate from the interviewers profile.
4. Use field-level security to control access to the address and birth date fields.

28. Which additional object is required to relate Position and Job Posting Site object, so that a user can report on the number of Positions associated with a given Job Posting Site? There are multiple Job Posting Sites to which each Position might be posted and there are multiple Positions posted to any given Job Posting Site.

1. Junction Object
2. Standard object
3. Lookup object
4. Parent Object

29. Which feature should a user choose, if the user needs to give access to just one record?

1. Hierarchies
2. Manual Sharing
3. Roles
4. Profiles
5. Picklists

30. Which type of Relationship should the developer use, when wanting child records not to be deleted at deletion of parent record?

1. master-to-master
2. master-detail
3. lookup
4. many-to-many

31. Which of the following are custom field types? (Choose 3 answers)

1. User
2. Address
3. Text
4. Lookup
5. Object
6. Phone Number

32. Which configuration will meet the requirement that all users of a Recruiting Application should be able to edit all Positions, except for User X? User X should be able to see, but not edit all positions.

1. Set the OWD for Position to Public Read-only and use a Sharing Rule to grant edit access to everyone except user X.
2. Set the OWD for positions to Public Read-only and remove user X from the Role Hierarchy.
3. Set the OWD for Positions to Public Read/Write and use a Sharing Rule to restrict user X from editing any Position records.
4. Set the OWD for Position to Public Read/Write and remove user X from Role Hierarchy.

33. System Administrators have View All record permission in Salesforce.

1. FALSE
2. TRUE

34. THe OWD setting for accounts is private. A manager resides above the team in the role hierarchy and wants to share team account summary within her team. Which feature can extend the viewing privileges to the team to allow them to see a summary of the team’s data. (Choose 2 answers)

1. Specifying herself, as the running user of a dashboard.
2. Specifying herself, as the running user of a report.
3. Dashboard folder access.
4. Report Folder access.

35. True or False: Restricting access to records can be controlled by Sharing Rules?

1. TRUE
2. FALSE

36. What are the three layers of a Force.com application?

1. Business Logic
2. User Interface
3. Data Model
4. Sandbox
5. Requirements
6. Network

37. For Encrypted Custom Fields, which three statements are true?

1. Encrypted fields are not available in filters for list views, reports, and roll up summary fields.
2. Encrypted fields can be included in report results.
3. Encrypted fields are not available for validation rules or Apex scripts.
4. Encrypted fields can be included in search results.

38. Child records in master-detail relationships have their own Organization Wide Defaults setting.

1. FALSE
2. TRUE

39. To make the System Fields insertable using the Apex Data Loader, one has to place a request with SFDC support that they provide you the ability to change those field values. Once SFDC support has given you that access, what can you now do via Data Loader?

1. Insert account records setting the $MarkSync field of each record.
2. Insert account records setting the CreatedDate field of each record.
3. Insert account records setting the isDeleted field of each record.
4. Insert account records setting the SystemModStamp field for each record.

40. Which of the following are types of custom relationships that can be built on the Force.com platform? (Choose 3 answers.)

1. Many-to-many
2. Master-Detail
3. Right Join
4. One-to-One
5. Inner Joins
6. Lookup

41. You are building a declarative application on the force.coming platform. The data model and the needed business logic have been considered. The report and dashboard requirements have not been considered. Which is true?

1. Developer will not be able to load data.
2. Data model may not support the required reports.
3. Data model may not be support the business logic.
4. Dashboard may not be visible to management users.

42. To create a many-to-many relationship, which two actions are required?

1. Create two master-detail relationships, each from the same child object to one of two parent objects.
2. Create a custom object to join two objects.
3. Define a many-to-many relationship between two objects with a rule.
4. Create the related list on the page layout of the junction object.

43. Organization Wide Defaults control both Standard and Custom objects.

1. FALSE
2. TRUE

44. To support multi-currency, which of the follow two facts should the developer consider?

1. Salesforce.com will automatically track and update the various currency rate changes.
2. Must place values in currency ISO Field.
3. The System Admin can add additional currencies, once multi currency has been enabled.
4. Roll up currency summary fields will calculate incorrectly, if on the accounts object rolling up opportunities using multiple currencies.

45. What is the purpose of a queue?

1. To group sellers by geographic locations.
2. To support user authentication.
3. To assign a record to multiple users.
4. To enable CTI (Computer Telephone Integration).

46. The baseline level of access for an object can be controlled by which feature?

1. Profiles
2. Users
3. Roles
4. Organization Wide Defaults
5. Object Level Security

47. What is the highest restrictive level of access that can be set on organization wide defaults?

1. Disabled
2. Read Only
3. Hidden
4. Private

48. What does the “C” in the MVC pattern represent?

1. C#
2. Controller
3. Class
4. Collaboration

49. Which step might a programmatic developer use to streamline the following process? CV Systems uses a recruiting application with custom objects to track positions and related interviewers. When a hiring manager creates a new position record, interviewer records for each individual on the interview team also need to be created. Currently, this process requires a user to create the position, save it, scroll to the interviewer related list, then create multiple interviewer records.

1. Create a new validation rule to trigger a pop-up window for a user to input interviewer data
2. Use a formula field to create a wizard that guides a user through the process.
3. Create a visualforce page that allows position and interviewer data to be input on a single page
4. Create a new page layout for positions and assign it to a new record type

50. Choose the True statement about a profile.

1. It enables specifying of object level permissions.
2. It can revoke access granted by sharing.
3. It can grant access to records using record types.
4. It gives access to record owners sharing rules.

51. In the M-V-C Model, which three of the the options is associated with data layer?

1. Objects
2. Fields
3. Validation Rules
4. Workflow Rules
5. Relationships

52. Deleting either parent of a Junction object will also delete the junction object record.

1. TRUE
2. FALSE

53. When creating a new profile, existing profile settings can be copied to new profile.

1. FALSE
2. TRUE

54. When building a custom application, developers can declaratively include a custom logo for the app.

1. FALSE
2. TRUE

55. In which report folder can a Salesforce administrator file reports for other users in the company to use?

1. Other Reports
2. Unfiled Public Reports
3. All Reports
4. Self-Service Reports
5. Administrative Reports

56. Which report types allow groupings and subtotals? (Choose 2 answers)

1. Dashboard
2. Matrix
3. Tabular
4. Standard
5. Pie
6. Summary

57. If you delete a report, but then change your mind, within 14 days you can retrieve it from the recycle bin.

1. TRUE
2. FALSE

58. Which of the following is true of a custom tab?

1. It can only be included in custom applications.
2. It can only be included in one application.
3. It can only be included in standard applications.
4. It can be included in as many applications as desired.

59. What are two capabilities of joined reports?

1. Schedule and email the raw report.
2. Add conditional highlighting to the data.
3. Export the data to a spreadsheet through printable view.
4. Add the joined report to a dashboard.

60. To report on trending items in your Salesforce CRM data, which type of report will be most suitable?

1. Matrix Report
2. Analytic Snapshot
3. Summary Report
4. Field History

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